I am getting ready to take F9 this December and have been looking at the past paper from last year. I cant understand where one of the figures comes from in teh calculation of Question 1 part B section i

(b) Phobis Co has in issue 9% bonds which are redeemable at their par value of $100 in five years’ time.
Alternatively, each bond may be converted on that date into 20 ordinary shares of the company. The current
ordinary share price of Phobis Co is $4·45 and this is expected to grow at a rate of 6·5% per year for the
foreseeable future. Phobis Co has a cost of debt of 7% per year.
Required:
Calculate the following current values for each $100 convertible bond:
(i) market value;
(ii) floor value;
(iii) conversion premium.

(b) Calculation of market value of each convertible bond
Expected share price in five years’ time = 4·45 x 1·0655 = $6·10
Conversion value = 6·10 x 20 = $122
Compared with redemption at par value of $100, conversion will be preferred
The current market value will be the present value of future interest payments, plus the present value of the conversion value,
discounted at the cost of debt of 7% per year.
Market value of each convertible bond = (9 x 4·100) + (122 x 0·713) = $123·89

No I get most of it but dont get where the 4.100 comes from, should it be 6.100, please help as I am going insane